Sorry if this appears like a simple question, I am working on a complex case with varying DB/DC schemes and I am confusing myself now.
Question: Does any unused LTA allowance still increase with CPI (under current regs obvs)? Example; client takes DB at 65 and uses £400K of allowance (20 x £20K DB income). Assuming LTA of £1.4M at 65 for this client and they have used £400K, does the £1M still increase each year by CPI? Voyant is showing that it does as the next DC crystallisations at 75 show the £1M plus the CPI growth.
Just wanted to check this was correct.